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Thread: Do liberals want to make the world safe for child molesters?

  1. #81
    New Member Havelock's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Sassy View Post
    You're diagnosable with a paraphilia. It's in the DSM as a psychiatric CONDITION.
    No. You're wrong.

    Cheers.

  2. #82
    ~Standing My Ground~ Sassy's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Havelock View Post
    No. You're wrong.

    Cheers.
    No, I am not. If something is in the DSM, it's a psychiatric condition. Or it wouldn't be in it.

  3. #83
    New Member Havelock's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Sassy View Post
    No, I am not. If something is in the DSM, it's a psychiatric condition. Or it wouldn't be in it.
    Yes, you are wrong. By definition... If you'd care to prove me wrong, then why don't you offer up a citation to prove your assertion.

    Cheers.

  4. #84
    ~Standing My Ground~ Sassy's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Havelock View Post
    Yes, you are wrong. By definition... If you'd care to prove me wrong, then why don't you offer up a citation to prove your assertion.

    Cheers.
    I don't need to. It's been cited over and over. Pedophilia remains as a paraphilia. In the DSM. So what is it? Why is it in the manual for psychiatric conditions if it isn't one?

  5. #85
    New Member Havelock's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Sassy View Post
    I don't need to. It's been cited over and over. Pedophilia remains as a paraphilia. In the DSM. So what is it? Why is it in the manual for psychiatric conditions if it isn't one?
    Asked and answered...

    Up until this point I was wondering if were were having an honest misunderstanding. Silly me...

    Carry on...

  6. #86
    ~Standing My Ground~ Sassy's Avatar
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    Interesting bit from the link above:

    Although the intent of this change is to reduce stigma by clarifying that atypical sexual arousal patterns are not evidence of psychopathology, the decision to repurpose the existing term paraphilia, understood for the past 34 years to be indicative of psychopathology in both medical and legal circles, is likely to create much confusion.13,14 It is easy to imagine how the technical difference between a paraphilia and a paraphilic disorder might be lost on judges, juries, and others not well versed in the subtleties of the DSM and thus the redefinition of paraphilia is likely to blur rather than sharpen the distinction between a disorder and a nondisorder. Moreover, in the context of child custody evaluations, receiving an ascertained label of a paraphilia such as pedophilia is likely to be as damaging as being diagnosed as having a paraphilic disorder.15

  7. #87
    ~Standing My Ground~ Sassy's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Havelock View Post
    Asked and answered...

    Up until this point I was wondering if were were having an honest misunderstanding. Silly me...

    Carry on...
    Don't give up on that idea. I'm giving you the benefit of the doubt in what is essentially a call-out thread, so you can do the same for me. The whole idea of this is to de-stigmatize pedophilia.

    Whether that is good or bad is a matter of opinion. So perhaps we simply don't agree!

  8. #88
    New Member Havelock's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Sassy View Post
    Don't give up on that idea. I'm giving you the benefit of the doubt in what is essentially a call-out thread, so you can do the same for me. The whole idea of this is to de-stigmatize pedophilia.

    Whether that is good or bad is a matter of opinion. So perhaps we simply don't agree!
    Is this essentially a call-out thread? Maybe it is if we’re going to define “call-out thread” to include a thread that challenges several folks’ stated opinions without specifically calling out particular individuals. That seems a pretty generous definition to me, but okay. Thanks for giving me the benefit of the doubt regardless.

    In any case, yes, I strongly suspect we don’t agree on the basic premises of this discussion. I think that’s the root of this exchange and the reason for its persistence, in fact. As for my take on those premises, I think I made that fairly clear in the post that started this thread. But, to reiterate, expand, and perhaps to clarify…

    Yes, with the publication of the DSM-5 the APA changed the wording they use to describe a mental disorder related to atypical sexual interests from “paraphila” to “paraphilic disorder.” They did this in part to help remove the stigma associated with equating a paraphilia with a mental disorder and in part to eliminate a particularly illogical quirk in their diagnostic system whereby a person could identify as having a paraphilia – in the sense that he or she had atypical sexual interests – without being formally diagnosed as having a “paraphilia” in the sense of a mental disorder. Again, that quirk existed for more than 20 years prior to the publication of the DSM-5. As I noted previously, the desire to remove stigma is part and parcel of an ongoing effort to ameliorate discrimination aimed at individuals who do not harm themselves or others and whose intrinsic sexual interests are not chosen and cannot be changed.

    I think that’s a worthy goal in general. It’s particularly important in the context of pedophilia because I think it is actually the best way to minimize the incidence of child molestation. So, maybe that could be a topic of further discussion in preference to purely speculative and wholly ungrounded assertions about the APA creating avenues for pedophiles to obtain treatment without being diagnosed with a mental disorder.

    Cheers.

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