Say two guys have sex, that makes them gay right? Now suppose one guy doesn't want to be gay anymore so get's married to a girl and raises a nice family. Is he still techniqually gay or does it go away?
Is it like losing your virginity where once its gone you never get it back?
This is an analytical question by the way so put your thinking caps on.
Wouldn't it make him bi?Originally Posted by Spookycolt
Last edited by lka; 2nd July 2012 at 04:03 AM.
If your bisexual aren't you still gay though?
Techniqually.
Its like being gay+1
Are you talking about a "friend" of yours?
Not at all though I do have many gay friends. It was actually a question posed by one of my professors during a philosophy class a couple years ago.
Sexuality isn't that black and white, or set in stone. One same-sex experience doesn't automatically make you either bisexual or homosexual. It could just be something you've experienced or experimented with.
So if two men have sex its not gay?
The act, sure. But it technically doesn't necessarily mean the men involved are automatically gay or bisexual.
Geez...
Suck just one dick and you are branded a "fairy" for life.
We were a little drunk... okay?
Thx
Fair enough but isn't being gay defined by the act itself. It is that which separates hetero and homosexuals.
So if one time does not make a person "gay", how many times would it take?
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